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There seems to have been another statute, 4 Ed.1 st.3 c.5, intituled "The Statute of Bigamy". James500 (talk) 11:19, 9 April 2009 (UTC)
There seems to be biblical support for a man being able to take two wives. In Genesis it talks of the Almighty creating souls and putting half in the man and half in the woman. So we have Adam and his first wife Lillith.
Only later does the Almighty take Adams rib and creates Eve as wife to Adam. Nowhere is there any mention of Adam divorcing Lillith to marry Eve.
So using biblical precedent, can a man legally take two wives or not? —Preceding unsigned comment added by 212.93.199.154 (talk) 09:47, 13 June 2009 (UTC)
In the article of morganatic marriage, there are examples of cases. Perhaps there should be examples here as well? There are some cases in history, called "marriage to the left hand", such as King Frederick William II of Prussia, who married both Julie von Voß and Sophie von Dönhoff while still being married to Frederika Louisa of Hesse-Darmstadt, and King Frederick IV of Denmark, who married Elisabeth Helene von Vieregg and Anna Sophie Reventlow still being married to Louise of Mecklenburg-Güstrow --85.226.40.118 (talk) 20:43, 23 May 2010 (UTC)
It makes the article really awful to read 94.194.66.92 (talk) 18:32, 29 July 2010 (UTC)
You're right it was unnecessary, so I took the liberty of removing most of it. --Digshake (talk) 01:44, 1 September 2010 (UTC)
As respects the United Kingdom, this expression is probably innacurate as bigamous marriages are deemed to be void and are not, strictly speaking deemed to be marriages at all (which is why interpretation of the expression "shall marry" in section 57 has caused problems as a person who is already married cannot marry again). It would be more accurate to say that it consists of going through a ceremony capable of producing a valid marriage (which is how s.57 has been interpreted). James500 (talk) 15:42, 15 March 2011 (UTC)
I agree that you are correct. I was about to change what I wrote. I agree that the expression is not "innacurate" per se, but it is POV, because the meaning of the word "marriage" depends on the system of law or theology or ethics that is being referred to. To put it another way, the expression is POV because there are people who would not accept that a bigamous "marriage" could be described as a "marriage" at all. Does that sound better? James500 (talk) 18:26, 15 March 2011 (UTC)
For the first time I have looked at articles on this subject here. It is very unclear to me why is there a separate article titled "Bigamy" and another titled "Polygamy"? Is there a principled reason? Could/should these be combined? Pete unseth (talk) 17:26, 26 October 2016 (UTC)
What should the article contain? Right now, it contains:
The history section can probably be expanded. Are there other sections that are necessary? The etymology may be too obvious to need a section on that, but other terms (Estoppel, Alimony) have one.
In general, there's a lot of overlap with Polygamy, but I believe the difference is that "bigamy" is specifically a legal term. power~enwiki (π, ν) 03:56, 27 November 2017 (UTC)
If a reliable source can be found, I think adding Argentina would be valuable to the listing.--Surv1v4l1st ╠Talk║Contribs╣ 20:55, 30 May 2022 (UTC)