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The opening paragraph says that English has a nominative, accusative, and genitive case. However, what it calls accusative would be more properly described as the oblique case, because it's used for more than just the direct objects of verbs. VIVIT-r (talk) 18:27, 17 December 2020 (UTC)
Consider the German sentence "Der alten Frau wurde neue Vorhänge gekauft" (The old woman was bought some new curtains.) (Apologies for any mistakes.) The words "der", "alten" and "Frau" are all in the dative case - but the phrase "der alten Frau" is also in the dative case, and it is not word, but a phrase. Count Truthstein (talk) 00:00, 15 April 2012 (UTC)
You are right in the sense that cases are intrinsic to referring groups/expressions. However, cases are different from adpositions because the number of words does not change when we replace a wording by one of its variants in another case. See below the difference between German and Spanish in this regard.
Deictic | Epithet | Thing |
---|---|---|
der | alte | Mann |
den | alten | Mann |
dem | alten | Mann |
des | alten | Mannes |
-- | Deictic | Thing | Epithet |
---|---|---|---|
-- | la | mujer | mayor |
a | la | mujer | mayor |
de | la | mujer | mayor |
con | la | mujer | mayor |
por | la | mujer | mayor |
para | la | mujer | mayor |
With 14 cases estonian is only mentioned once... — Preceding unsigned comment added by 146.255.183.227 (talk) 21:41, 9 July 2015 (UTC)
I changed the vocative "băiete!" (boy!) to ""băiatule!". The vocative "băiete!" is a contraction specific to this noun (boy) and few others, not the general case, and it was not reflecting the "rule" of how Romanian cases are formed. For other Romanian contrarians here, try replacing with other nouns, including "fecior" (boy/son/teenager/virgin), "cal" (horse), "bou" (bull/ox), whatever. I put the "rule" in quotes because vocative in Romanian is "very murky water", the linguists do not really agree with forms of many nouns and that is for example the reason why vocatives can't be used in a Scrabble game (they are not on the official list of accepted words). There are lots of ways to form vocatives (especially insults :P) in Romanian. — Preceding unsigned comment added by LaurV (talk • contribs) 08:09, 11 August 2019 (UTC)
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Should German be listed in the examples in paragraph 2?
(Also is the term Caucasian languages being used in the sense 'languages of the Caucasus'?)
Cheers ash (talk) 01:20, 3 January 2017 (UTC) 14:33, 29 March 2016 (UTC)
The article says that English has no cases (the map shades light grey); the genitive in English is described as a clitic. How does one determine that the "'s" on the end of "farmer's" is a "clitic" and not an inflection? I ask, because the article also says that Japanese has lots of cases, indicated by "particles". How would a blinkered empiricist determine whether a (more-or-less invariant) bit stuck after a noun was a clitic ("not case") or a particle ("case")? Imaginatorium (talk) 13:38, 23 April 2017 (UTC)
The first two paragraphs of the intro seemed too technical to me. I added an intro, moving those paragraphs to positions 2 and 3. The first paragraph should describe the concept to beginners, relying on familiar examples in the language of the reader. --OsamaBinLogin (talk) 22:10, 17 May 2018 (UTC)
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The picture contradicts the text. It says that the English language has no cases, but the text says that "...personal pronouns still have three cases that are simplified forms of the nominative, accusative and genitive cases that are used with personal pronouns: subjective case (I, you, he, she, it, we, they, who, whoever), objective case (me, you, him, her, it, us, them, whom, whomever) and possessive case (my, mine; your, yours; his; her, hers; its; our, ours; their, theirs; whose; whosever)." Even nouns have grammatical case in nominative and genitive. The same applies to Swedish, Danish and Norwegian. Is the text or the picture correct? --213.112.69.209 (talk) 18:50, 7 December 2017 (UTC)
'Ancient Greek,' as a broad classification of dialects spoken over relatively large time periods, is inclusive of potentially non Indo-European dialects. 'Ancient Greek' should be removed from the Indo-European section or made to be more specific. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 77.165.64.198 (talk) 23:43, 27 March 2018 (UTC)
See: https://nl.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geslacht_(Nederlands)
And: https://nl.wikipedia.org/wiki/Genitief#De_genitief_in_het_Nederlands
Also: https://nl.wikipedia.org/wiki/Datief#Datief_in_het_Nederlands
And: https://nl.wikipedia.org/wiki/Accusatief
Dutch used to have three(four?) genders like German, dictionaries still mention gender as it still applies in some circumstances where you'll still see the genitive/dative/accusative applied.
Examples:
- In naam der wet.
- De vader des vaderlands
- De burgemeester, op wiens gezag ik u dit in vertrouwen meedeel
- De directrice, op wier gezag ik u dit in vertrouwen meedeel,
- op den duur
- met voorbedachten rade
Someone who knows how to properly translate the grammar related lexicon should have a look at the linked Dutch wiki article.
I would translate, but I'm simply not up to the task translating it. Eg. the genders are female/male/neuter + 'Commun'=?? - Sorry, no idea.
The map is not correct: English does still preserve at least one case, namely, the genitive/possessive.
Consider, for example, the book of the child versus the child's book. The possessive case of the word, "child", is indicated by the addition of -(e)s. (Historically, the unpronounced letter, e, has been subsituted with an apostophe -- but, it's still there.) Mwidunn (talk) 20:15, 1 March 2020 (UTC)mwidunn
What about uppercase and lowercase? --Backinstadiums (talk) 22:27, 24 April 2022 (UTC)
Croatian and serbian have six cases not seven. (It is distinguished in textbooks (historical reasons), but locative is always the same as genitive in standard language.) 213.150.1.108 (talk) 08:39, 4 December 2023 (UTC)
'Nevertheless, it cannot be inferred that the Ancient Greeks really knew what grammatical cases were. Grammatical cases were first recognized by the Stoics and from some philosophers of the Peripatetic school.'
Surely, if the Stoics and some Peripatetics 'recognised' them, and considering the fact that the Stoics and Peripatetics were Ancient Greeks, that would mean that the Ancient Greeks 'knew' them?! Of course 'the' Ancient Greeks can't mean every single member of their societies. 62.73.69.121 (talk) 07:48, 6 January 2024 (UTC)